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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 06:34

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why is it so hard to date nowadays?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why is India lagging behind China in economic development when India is a democracy while China isn’t?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

What would happen if Kakashi and Naruto switched places?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.